The following is a highly edited version of a comment thread found on the blog Gene Expression. The thread discusses the role of empricism verus deduction in the social sciences. The star commenter PhysicistDave actually studied under Feynman, which gives him some nice cachet. Unfortunately, Dave does not have his own blog. I am republishing his comments so that I can send the link to people the next time I get in a debate over economics. The other commenters are Razib, the host of GNXP, and Mencius, a semi-retired (post-IPO) software engineer who spends $500 a month on books.
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Razib
There was a time in the past when I was a hard-core libertarian. Now, I'm not one of the few dozen people in the world who has actually read Ludwig von Mises' Human Action (I'd be willing to bet some gold that half of these individuals who've gotten through von Mises' magnum opus
are virgins!), so my libertarian nerdishness only went so far. All that
being said, there was a time I would have said I favored the Austrian School of economics. I was a libertarian, and the Austrian School was congenial to libertarianism, ergo, I supported the Austrian School (I knew I opposed Keynesians as well as the neoclassical models).
But I'd always had issues because I knew that
the Austrian school rejected econometrics and positivism; and being
steeped in experimental science I'd always viewed positivism as a Good
Thing.
But over the past few years, and especially
over the past months, I've been doing some reading on Google Books and
elsewhere on the intellectual history of the Austrian School, and
especially praxeology. What the hell is praxeology? Well, from praxeology.net:
Praxeology is the study of those aspects of human action that can be grasped a priori;
in other words, it is concerned with the conceptual analysis and
logical implications of preference, choice, means-end schemes, and so
forth.
The "grasped a priori" part has really bothered me. The more and more I read about psychology the more I think that anyone
who believes that they could develop an axiomatic system of human
action from insights they grasped a priori is totally retarded (mad props to Aristotle though, he worked before the cognitive revolution).
I have suggested that an attraction to
libertarianism is in part a function of your personality. Normal people
rarely become libertarians, rather, it's a ideology driven by young
non-alpha males with Roark/Galt fantasies. Any survey of the biographies of von Mises or Murray Rothbard emphasizes their stubborn heterodox tendencies; but at this point I just wonder if they were social retards to whom their a priori
logic was plausible because they really weren't as complicated as most
humans, who engage in habitual and casual hypocrisy and contradiction.
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PhysicistDave
I read "Human Action" in high school (as well as Keynes' "General Theory").
Mises was a Kantian -- Kantians believe in the "synthetic a priori." Simple as that.
Rothbard was not a Kantian, and, in principle, disagreed with Mises on
this – i.e., Rothbard thought that economics was ultimately based on
some very broad (and very obvious) empirical facts about human nature.
In practice, though, Rothbard did note that essentially all economics
of all schools was based on “armchair” reasoning – e.g., Keynes did not
go out and carefully measure economic variables before writing the
“General Theory.”
The great exponent of positivism in economics was Milton Friedman, but
in fact he did not really mean it. If your read “Free to Choose,” for
example, or his more scholarly works (as I have), he uses empirical
facts to illustrate economic theories but not really to test them.
The “a priorist” issue was largely just a matter of noting what
economic theorists actually do and of codifying already established
academic boundaries. For example, Rothbard’s Ph.D. thesis, “The Panic
of 1819” and his later “America’s Great Depression” both included, of
course, empirical data. But Rothbard (rightly, I think, in terms of
academic terminology) labelled these as “economic history” rather than
as pure economics. (A similar point is true of Friedman’s work.)
In a sense the distinction Rothbard was driving at was the same as the
distinction I, as a theoretical physicist, make between math and
physics. I use math, but I view it as a priori and do not even consider
testing the math experimentally. (That of course does not mean I do not
sometimes make errors in the math.)
Roughly speaking, as Rothbard and Mises saw it (and as most academics
actually practice economics), economics is to economic history or
econometrics as math is to physics. It’s more a matter of terminology
than anything else.
The one non-terminological point here is that, periodically, some
economists who are in fact engaged in clearly a priori thinking insist
on claiming that they are empiricist positivists. Some Keynesians did
this until it turned out in the ‘70s (stagflation, the shifting
Phillips’ curve, etc.) that Keynesiansim empirically did not work. In
fact, this was clear a priori to anyone of any intelligence from the
beginning – Keynes’ reasoning was wrong in the “General Theory.”
If I make a math error as a physicist, empirical testing is pointless –
we’re not really testing the theory if my math derivations from that
theory are wrong. The same point applies in economics: since Keynes’
reasoning was wrong (he made errors in dimensional analysis –
economists call what he missed the Pigou or real-balance effect),
empirical testing was really pointless. While it is nice (although
tough for the country!) that Keynes’ predictions were falsified by
empirical experience, those predictions did not follow from his
premises anyway.
Incidentally, I can falsify your hypothesis about Rothbard. You wrote: I just wonder if they [Mises and Rothbard] were social retards to
whom their a priori logic was plausible because they really weren't as
complicated as most humans, who engage in habitual and casual hypocrisy
and contradiction.
I knew Murray personally over several years and also had several mutual
acquaintances. From my observations (and others’ reports), Murray was,
oddly enough, a convivial, wild-and-crazy party animal. He was a big
sports fan, loved soap operas, and was fond of early jazz.
In all of those respects, I hasten to add, I am Murray’s opposite – I’m a nerd and proud of it.
He did have an omnivorous curiosity (rather like you) and was, in my
observation, fastidiously honest. In those respects, I suppose he could
be called nerdy.
Incidentally, his biggest fights within the libertarian movement came
over his insistence that empirical reality had to rule. He insisted for
example that one had to look at the actual historical reality of
American foreign policy, which of course turns out, historically, not
to be exactly the model of high-minded altruism that most Americans
(and a large number of libertarians) conceive it as being. This, and
his empiricist insistence on looking at the concrete details of
American historical icons – everyone from Washington to Lincoln to
Reagan, as well as at the reality of the political power and
shenanigans of Big Business (many libertarians – especially
Objectivists – worshipped Big Business; Murray didn’t) antagonized a
large number of libertarians.
He was actually the most empirically-oriented economist I’ve ever known
– but he did indeed insist to this dying days that all of his empirical
stuff was economic history, poli sci, sociology, etc., not real
economics. As I said, largely a terminological matter.
Incidentally, I seriously considered majoring in economics rather than
physics and actually had an offer to do a post-doc in econ after my
Ph.D. in physics, which is why I am acquainted with all this. I can
actually get up on the spur of the moment and give a one-hour lecture
comparing and contrasting Keynesian, monetarist, and Austrian theories
of the business cycle, one of my many useless talents, I fear. (I am
not up-to-date on rational-expectations business-cycle theories,
however, since I was already out of school when they were developed.)
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PhysicistDave
Razib, it won’t surprise you that I’m curious
about behavioral economics, game theory, etc. However, I have a
“proof-of-the-pudding” attitude here: I’ve seen very little from those
areas that were interesting, significant, surprising results (the one
exception that comes to mind, which includes both behavioral economics
and game theory, is Axelrod’s classic “Tit-for-Tat” study). On the
other hand, old-fashioned “armchair” economics has come up with results
that are extremely surprising to most people until they learn
economics: an increase in the money supply does not increase wealth but
only produces price inflation, minimum wage laws destroy jobs, rent
controls cause housing shortages, etc. (I know those points may seem
obvious to everyone here, but go out on the street and talk to ordinary
Americans and you'll find lots of people blissfully ignorant of those
basic facts of economics!)
I think the reason for that is that traditional economics does not base
itself on psychology at all but rather on extremely “robust”
assumptions that are almost certain to hold true independent of details
of psychology.
Consider for example the “profit-maximizing” assumption. Taken in a
strict monetary sense (it can be expanded into a broader sense of
psychological “utility” of course), no one really thinks it is true.
Rothbard and Mises were well-aware of this, and, indeed, Rothbard was
openly contemptuous of people who thought that “utility” was some
measurable quantity that could actually be observed: he stated
repeatedly that “utility” was simply short-hand for the fact that
people do order their choices, make decisions, etc. (He was also
contemptuous of “indifference curves,” etc. – obviously, indifference
curves are a fiction useful for giving final exams to undergraduates,
and not much else! The “results” you get from indifference curves were
already well-known long before anyone heard of indifference curves.)
However, even though many firms do not actually systematically,
single-mindedly try to maximize profits, a firm that pays no attention
to its profits will go under and will, metaphorically speaking, be
removed from the gene pool. In the end, the firms that survive will
behave in a way that is pretty close to traditional profit maximization.
Do you know of Ollie Williamson’s work in so-called neo-institutional
economics? Fascinating stuff, lots of empirical examples, but, in the
end, he applies the same-old traditional armchair logic-of-action
analysis used by Rothbard and all the traditional economists. The same
can be said of Gary Becker et al.’s extension of economics to everyday
life (“Freakonomics” etc.) – one can argue about whether their
empirical data has been properly interpreted but to argue about whether
or not people make choices, whether those choices are influenced by
incentives, etc. would be rather silly.
Incidentally, natural science often works just like Austrian economics
(really, all economics). You know the Maxwell velocity distribution for
molecules in a gas – Maxwell derived it completely a prior; I worked
out a novel (completely a priori of course) derivation myself a few
weeks ago. Of course, it has been empirically tested many times, but if
a test claimed to disprove it, we physicists would disbelieve the
experiment, not Maxwell. The assumptions behind the derivation are so
simple, and the math so straightforward and solid, that for a
“classical” gas, it is hard for any physicist to see how it could
possibly fail to be true. Again, let me emphasize that this was true
long before it was tested empirically.
Perhaps even a closer case is natural selection – once you know some
very simple facts about Mendelian genetics and sexual reproduction, you
just have to have natural selection. The application of natural
selection to, say, industrial melanism can be debated in terms of
empirical details, but the broad analytic points that we all know about
changes in gene frequency vs. selection pressure are essentially a
priori.
It is in exactly the same sense that Rothbard thought of economics as
“a priori”: to him, the word “economics” referred to the analytical
apparatus analogous to the analytical apparatus we all know in modern
genetics. In both cases, to refer to that analytic apparatus as “a
priori” seems not unreasonable. This of course is the reason Popper
once claimed that evolution was not really science, since the
underlying principles (once you have Mendelian genetics) are not
subject to empirical refutation.
I’m afraid that a lot of people who criticize the Austrians (and in
fact all competent economists) for their a priorism are making the same
mistake Popper made: they’re failing to look at the full structure of
the whole discipline. Indeed, as I said, the same criticism could also
be made of huge chunks of physics, such as statistical mechanics.
Empiricism is a false description of science – whether physics, biology, or economics.
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PhysicistDave
I’ve already mentioned Keynes’ error, usually
referred to as ignoring the Pigou/real-balance effect. To technical
people, a clearer way of putting it is that he wrongly changed his
units without seeing what he was doing – in the middle of his analysis,
he switched from real units to monetary units without recognizing this.
Had he stuck with one or the other, it would have worked (and he would
have gotten results that were quite traditional). It’s the same error
that kids make when they switch from feet to inches without multiplying
by 12. The error is buried in a complicated discussion in a section of
the “General Theory” that almost no one pays much attention to because
it seems a pointless sideshow. Unfortunately, it’s not pointless, and
it wrecks his whole system (and explains why Keynesianism failed
disastrously in the US back in the ‘70s).
Keynes was actually a sort of pomo literary intellectual – a
fascinating guy who had some interesting things to say about culture,
etc. But his analytical skills were very weak. His literary skills
bamboozled many of his fellow economists for quite a while, although
some eventually started to escape from the spell. For example, John
Hicks, one of the most prominent of the early Keynesians, actually
wrote an interesting book in his later years explicitly extolling the
Austrian theory of capital, investment, etc.!
The monetarist (basically Friedmanite) theory of the trade cycle is too
a priori. It basically studies a make-believe economy in which monetary
inflation is distributed uniformly throughout the economy, as via a
helicopter that drops money across the country – hence, it is
disparaged as the “helicopter model.” Incidentally, the current Fed
Chairman is sometimes referred to as “Helicopter Ben” because he has
publicly threatened to do just this to stimulate the economy!
Friedman applied this “toy model” to the experience of the US in the
Great Depression, and it does in fact explain much of what happened
after the ’29 Crash, though not the crash itself.
The Austrian theory, curiously, despite all the brouhaha over “a
priorism,” is the most empirical of the three. The Austrians insist on
rejecting the naïve helicopter model and following through the actual
process by which the Fed injects new money into economy: new money
first goes into the capital markets and from there diffuses through the
economy at large. Initially, it therefore inflates prices in the
capital markets (causing a capital boom) and only later causes price
inflation in the economy as a whole.
You can show that the boom in the capital markets will subside once the
money has diffused throughout the economy as a whole. The subsiding of
the capital-market boom is what initiates the crisis.
This theory, incidentally, was worked out by Mises early in the
twentieth century, well before the ’29 Crash, which it so nicely
explained. I’ll leave it as an exercise for the student to look back at
Fed monetary statistics and see how the theory explains the dot-com
bust and the current subprime crisis.
The Fed can prolong the boom (and ultimately the crisis) by increasing
its expansionary monetary policies – this seems to be what dear old
Helicopter Ben plans to do.
One of the main points that Rothbard made is that the empirical details
of how this works out are always different each time because of
institutional changes, popular psychology, etc. He was fascinated by
those historical, empirical differences, as shown by the fact that he
published book-length studies of both the ’29 Crash and the 1819 Panic.
Of course, all of us have followed this pop psychology in the news for
both the dot-com crash and the current subprime disaster. Interesting,
isn’t it?
Rothbard doubted (and I agree with him) that anyone can ever get an
adequate theory that could fully explain these varying psychological
details in the final playing out of the boom-bust process, but I’m sure
he would have been happy to be proved wrong. If anyone thinks you can
do a better empirical job than Rothbard, do it! Tell us how the current
crisis will play itself out in all its empirical details (before the
fact, please, not afterwards).
Good luck!
Anyway, these are the highlights of my talk – all of the details can be filled in by going to fairly obvious sources.
I hope this does make it clear why I consider the Austrian school, at
least in its Misesian/Rothbardian form, to be far and away the most
“empirical’ school of economics of all and am always bemused by attacks
against Rothbard in particular for being too “a prioir.” Rothbard was
absolutely obsessed with learning empirical details about not only
economic history, but, in my personal experience, even physics.
However, he was indeed unwilling to pursue what my own mentor, Richard
Feynman, dubbed “cargo-cult science”: i.e., social science that was
filled with complicated math that looked like physics (to anyone
ignorant of physics) but had nothing to do with the real world.
I’m afraid that too many people who want “empirical” social science really want “cargo-cult” science.
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Razib
PhysicistDave, i'll try to engage with you in more detail
later, but on the point of the a priori discovery of the laws of "classical" gas, yes, totally
correct. That's why i reject any hard adherence to popperism or other
sort of systematic theory of how science works. as i've asserted
before: science is a culture. It's wrong most of the time and only beats expectation over the long run. so yeah, scientists infer from the a priori,
and they filter results through their presuppositions. but a kuhnian
sociological treatment suggests that over time the priors shift in
response to empirical results.
Your reference to genetics is interesting. After all, I agree, a lot of it is a priori. That being said, two points:
1) A minor point is that i trust mathematical formalism a lot more than
verbal logic. i'm generally skeptical of chains of propositions from
verbal analysis.
2) Even though the grossest outlines of genetics are derivable a priori,
stuff like debates about neutralism, selectionism, the different
dynamics of population genetic parameters across taxa, show that you
can't really derive the structure from first principles as a matter of
practicality. fisher, haldane and wright were very smart, but obviously
there were reasons that they didn't elucidate a theory of molecular
neutralism before crow & kimura (i.e., they didn't know as much
about the nature of the substrate through which the dynamics operated,
nor did they have access to empirical work such as lewontin and hubby's
which would make them recalibrate their presuppositions).
Now, in the end, you surely know more about the history of economic
thought than i. perhaps my whole critique is built upon misimpressions
or a misunderstanding.
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PhysicistDave
Razib-
I know you’re not a naïve positivist. I’m just
trying to make the broad point that whether we are talking about
Popper’s erroneous (and later retracted) criticisms of evolutionary
theory or criticisms of Rothbard’s “a priorism,” you need to look
beyond the soundbite version of methodology to see what is really going
on.
Rothbard was actually a very empirical guy, though his research
interests happened not to lie in the same direction as Becker's or the
behavioral economists'.
Years ago, I actually played around (naturally enough, since I’m a
physicist) with putting the stuff in my response to Jon and geek1 into
mathematics. You don’t really gain anything, although if I wanted to
get it published in mainstream econ journals, it would probably help to
impress the editors and reviewers (as Feynman said, “cargo-cult
science”). If you know what you are doing, you can make all sorts of
cool oscillations occur, for example, but, if you know what you are
doing, you also realize you are really putting that in by hand by how
you structure the model equations.
Incidentally, the same thing happens even in physics, where some math
is of course really necessary. I’ve seen physics papers published in
prestigious journals where the math is simply wrong, but complicated
enough that the reviewers and editors did not catch it. An old friend
of mine, now a tenured professor at one of the country’s top
universities, actually released a preprint of this sort years ago –
utter nonsense, due to a trivial algebra error. Fortunately, I caught
it for him and it was never published. If he had simply described what
he was doing in words, instead of fooling around with unnecessary
algebra, it would have been clear to him and anyone else that it was
nonsense and that he should never have bothered to write the paper.
Based on experiences like this in physics, I have formulated Miller’s
law: never use more mathematics in any paper or presentation than is
absolutely necessary unless you wish to publicly make a fool of
yourself.
Unfortunately, math doesn't save you. I once saw a
"ground-breaking" paper (it would have been if it had been right!)
published in the top US physics journal in which the authors "proved"
their conclusion by dividing by a quantity that is provably equal to
zero.
You’re supposed to learn that this is a no-no in first year algebra.
I patiently wrote up a letter to the authors and the editor explaining this.
The authors sent a verbally abusive response back to me; the editors
were too dumb or too busy to remember that you cannot divide by zero.
The paper eventually sank into the oblivion it so richly deserved.
Believe it or not, this is actually the norm in academic physics. When
I was a doctoral student, my thesis advisor told me not to bother to
read the journals.
I do of course agree that in physics and engineering, it is nonetheless
nice to try to cross-check yourself however you can, and I do strive
for multiple different derivations to check an answer when I’m doing
math. And, obviously, in much of physics and engineering, you simply
have to use math: verbal arguments are sometimes simply not possible.
But I’d be hard-pressed to think of any place in econ where math
helped, and I can think of a lot of places where it hurts. I’d be happy
to see a counter-example, since I’m better at math than at words. (Of
course, no one denies that you have to use statistics in econometrics,
economic history, etc. I’m talking about “pure” theory.)
One of my blind spots in economics is rational-expectations theory:
they use a lot of math, and it may actually be needed there. I don’t
yet know enough about that area to judge.
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PhysicistDave
I largely agree with Bryan Caplan's comments on Rothbard's "America's Great Depression":
to a large degree, they boil down to saying that Bryan (and I) would
have written a somewhat different book. Specifically, I, like Bryan,
would have given more attention to the effects of sticky wages combined
with the contraction of the money supply – this is why, in my little
essay above, I said that monetarism explains much of what happened
after the Crash. As Bryan said, Rothbard did address this, but I would
have given it more prominence than Rothbard did. Indeed, a lot of other
issues were relevant too – the disastrous “beggar-my-neighbor”
protectionist policies that wrecked the world trading system,
cartelization of failing industries, etc. Rothbard did address some of
these issues also.
I disagree with Bryan most strongly on the ability of entrepreneurs to
predict the future actions of the monetary authority (the Fed) and the
consequences of those actions. For one reason or another, anyone who
reads the newspapers knows that they just don’t do this.
Of course, why they don’t is an interesting question. Perhaps it has
something to do with the institutional structures – golden parachutes
for CEOs, federal deposit insurance, etc.
While I’ve been in the role of defending Rothbard here – he was a very
bright guy, and I liked him personally – I hope it is clear that I am
not saying that he is beyond criticism. I could list a long string of
topics on which I disagreed with him, ranging from Giffen goods to the
philosophical status of natural law. But that only proves that either
Rothbard or I was wrong sometimes, which is hardly news to anyone,
given that he and I were both human.
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PhysicistDave
tc wrote: I don't know much about Austrian theory, but
are you saying that the Fed's actions caused the dotcom bubble? Having
lived through it, I saw plenty of irrational herding behavior in myself
and the people around me…
Perhaps I’d use the word “enabled” rather than “caused.”
One should never underestimate the power of human irrationality, herd
mentality, etc. Social affairs are multi-causal. But if you already
have, as the Chairman said, “irrational exuberance,” it does not help
for the monetary authority to provide a congenial monetary environment
that makes it easier for the capital markets to go nuts.
Your point is the one that I was making and that the Austrian
economists have repeatedly made. Every boom is different in its
details, psychological features, etc. – the Great Boom of the ‘20s was
different from the “Nifty Fifty” of the ‘60s which was different from
the dot com boom which differs from the current subprime crisis.
Human psychology and culture are so complex that I doubt that anyone
will ever come up with a unifying theory that applies in great
quantitative detail to each and every speculative boom.
But there does tend to be a commonality among the booms of an
expansionist monetary policy on the part of the monetary authority (for
the US, the Fed). While that is certainly not the sole cause of
irrational speculation, it does fuel the fever and allows the booms to
be sustained longer, and therefore ultimately causes more damage when
the inevitable bust occurs.
Incidentally, as long as we have a fiat money system “managed” by a
central bank that is ultimately responsible to a democratic political
system, this unfortunate “accommodation” of irrational behavior is
probably inevitable. Greenspan wrote about this years before he became
the Chairman (and people who knew him personally said he continued to
acknowledge it privately even while Chairman), but if he had acted
according to his convictions, he would have lost his job.
Chairman Al really liked his job.
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PhysicistDave
chairmanK writes: Nobody would write a treatise on the sexual
preferences of fruit flies without ample experimental data on how flies
choose mates and copulate. Economics is just human behavior, and to
correctly characterize human behavior, one must analyze real behavioral
data collected on real human animals.
I take it you're not a scientist (e.g., a
physicist like me)? If you were, you'd know that the naive positivism
you espouse has not worked historically in the natural sciences, as
Razib and I discussed earlier in this thread.
And, as also was discussed earlier, most of Friedman's theoretical work
(e.g., the “quantity theory”) was also essentially a priori, like
almost all economists (including Keynes, Ricardo, Smith, etc.). I know
of no significant results in the history of economics that were arrived
at through the sort of positivistic approach you suggest.
Of course, maybe I missed something -- I'd be happy to hear your examples if you have any.
Every now and them some ignoramus makes the suggestion that
mathematicians too should stop their silly a priori theorizing and
simply use the experimental method like all sensible people do. This
sort of person could not understand a need to prove Fermat's Last
Theorem given the huge number of examples that had been shown
empirically to satisfy the theorem.
I think it is fair to say that no one who understands mathematics makes such suggestions.
And I also think it is fair to say that no one with a decent understanding of economics would make the suggestion you have made.
But I am open-minded on issues of methodology. Prove me wrong.
I’ve listed earlier on this thread various well-established,
interesting results in economics arrived at through the traditional
non-positivist methods of economics.
Now, it’s your turn. Tell us of all the wonderful, solid, interesting
results arrived at through the positivist approach. you advocate.
Go for it.
Give us your best shot.
I’m actually hoping you come up with something – I like learning new things.
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Mencius
razib, if there is one book that will make you change your mind: it is Rothbard's Man, Economy, and State.
The only way to judge AE is to actually work through it. It is not
hard. It is actually much simpler than the mathematical models that
have entranced you. And it makes better predictions. (Checked the news
today?) Sometimes simple is good.
Let me try to explain the relationship between psychology and
praxeology. Razib, chairmanK, both you guys program, n'est ce pas? You
are familiar with the word "orthogonal"? In that case, the answer is
simple: praxeology is orthogonal to psychology. They do not conflict
any more than TCP conflicts with IP.
When Misesians think praxeologically, they abstract over psychology. They try to derive principles which apply to systems of subjectively motivated agents whatever their desires may be. Praxeological conclusions, at least if they are right, are independent of psychology.
Do you think that no such conclusion can be drawn? Here is a simple example. Try and refute it.
A basic principle of praxeology is that an option cannot have negative
subjective value. That is, a subjectively motivated agent, whatever its
motivation, whether it is a human or a little green alien, cannot
rationally prefer a position in which it has more options to a position
in which it has less.
If you can go to the mall or play chess, your life is better than if
you can only play chess. "But wait," you say. "What about the
psychological stress of making a decision? Isn't that a cost? Doesn't
it factor into my utility curve?"
(There is no such thing as a utility or indifference curve. The entire
trope illustrates the abominable 20C habit of talking about
undefinable, immeasurable and unquantifiable concepts as though they
were definable, measurable and quantifiable. Hello, cargo cult science.
Or more precisely, cargo cult empiricism.)
But actually, Austrians have not missed the psychological burden of an
option at all. They merely insist that you include it in the problem
statement. If you subjectively prefer to be relieved of the decision of
whether to go to the mall or play chess, that relief is a good, and
when you set up your problem without it and then later tried to
shoehorn it in, you erred.
The fascinating thing about Austrian economics, then, is that it is
absolutely independent of human psychology. The Austrian theory of the
business cycle may be correct or incorrect - you can check it for
yourself, just as you can check any proof. It is not a hypothesis, it
is a deductive construct. (I am not endorsing all the conclusions of
the Mises-Rothbard school - in fact, I think some of them could use a
little updating.)
But if the derivation of the ABCT is correct, it works just as well for
the nine-armed octopi in the Large Magellanic Cloud as well as for
humans here on earth. If AE in general is correct, monetary policy is
the same thing for the octopi. Term transformation will not work any better for them than it works for us. Und so weiter.
From a broader standpoint, I think Popperian science occupies too large
a place in your epistemology. "Science" has come to mean two distinct
things: any procedure for arriving at highly reliable knowledge, and
one specific procedure for arriving at highly reliable knowledge. The
latter is constantly threatening to crowd out the former, generating
the well-known lamppost effect.
Perhaps if we call the former "reason" and the latter "science," we
could say that (Popperian) science is a valid epistemology because
reason can deduce - aprioristically - that it should be so. The
scientific method itself, for example, would be valid even if no
science had ever been done. It is not at all the product of empirical
analysis.
In other words, it is not that reason works because reason is
scientific. It is that science works because science is reasonable. But
this - as Dave points out - doesn't prevent other things from being
reasonable. Socrates is not a cat, or even a Kat.
In case it isn't obvious, I should also mention
why Austrians prefer to apply praxeology than the scientific method to
economics.
The reason is that it is impractical to apply the scientific method to
economics, because people are not fruit flies and do not fit in a Petri
dish. "Empirical" is a telling word. What it means is "we don't have
the budget to perform an actual controlled experiment."
If you could perform significant controlled experiments on human
societies, this would be another path to the conclusions that
praxeology produces. You cannot. But you can certainly pretend to. You
can certainly treat uncontrolled correlations as evidence that some
real mechanism exists which matches your model. (Can you say "Phillips
curve," boys and girls?) If this isn't what Feynman meant by cargo cult
science, well, um, it should have been.
------------------------------------
PhysicistDave
ChairmanK writes: I study neuroscience. I am accustomed to working
with mountains of data and little theory. I believe that I can gain
astonishing insights into how animals process information, simply by
looking at patterns in the experimental data. I use mathematics to do
this, but the mathematics alone do not give me any useful results.
I agree with you that a priori reasoning is an essential
part of science. I appreciate your example of the Darwinian theory of
natural selection, which I believe must be trivially true, even though
the direct experimental evidence is not overwhelming. Likewise,
I believe that economists have deep reasons for believing the
non-empirical explanatory theories that they invoke. Simple, elegant
theories help us to understand real data.
As I have tried to explain above, the correct term
for Mises’ approach (and really all economic theorists' historically)
would be “deduction from well-established, broadly robust empirical
facts.” Unfortunately, that does not have the zing of “a priorism,” but
it does capture more accurately what Mises (and all economic theorists)
actually did. Rothbard did make this point explicitly to try to correct
misconceptions due to Mises’ use of the term “a priorism,” but, as this
lengthy thread so well demonstrates, Rothbard did not do an adequate
job of getting the word out.
Your own field of neuroscience is a very young science, and therefore
it is not surprising that you are dealing with mounds of data.
But the goal of science is indeed “deduction from well-established, broadly robust empirical facts.”
More mature sciences, such as economics and some parts of physics, have actually achieved this.
As I mentioned above, statistical mechanics may come closest to
economics in this respect. Given some extremely broad principles –
basically conservation of energy and a weak form of time reversal
invariance – you can deduce statistical mechanics quite rigorously. (If
any mathematician is lurking, yes, I know you also need some form of
ergodicidty, but I also know it is hard to avoid ergodicity in any sort
of realistic system. I’m using “rigorous” as natural scientists use the
term, not mathematicians.)
To the best of my knowledge, no competent physicist has ever though it
necessary to empirically check statistical mechanics: we use it all the
time, but if some experimentalist claims to have experimentally
disproven the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, we would just chuckle,
pat him on the head, and recommend psychiatric treatment.
We cannot yet do this in all fields of physics, but the goal of physics is to be like economics.
It is indeed true that if you can find a community of humans all of
whom would much rather pay higher prices than lower prices for
everything that they buy, then that will wreak havoc with the law of
supply and demand. But, as long as most people, other things being
equal, usually prefer a low price over a high price, the law of supply
and demand will stand. And, if an experimental economist claimed to
‘disprove” the law of supply and demand, economists would quite
appropriately think he was more than a little incompetent.
To take another example from physics, are you old enough to remember
the “cold fusion” brouhaha? When it came out, my cousin, who is a
banker, asked me if it was legit. I told him that almost certainly the
claimed experimental results were either fraud, or, more likely,
incompetence.
Almost all physicists said the same thing before any experimental checking had been done. We were of course correct.
Yes, economics, like any empirical study is not and cannot be strictly
“a priori.” But, for practical purposes, like many areas of physics, it
is. Again, a more accurate description would be “deduction from
well-established, broadly robust empirical facts” rather than “a
priorism,” but in practical terms, most people would call my behavior
as a physicist in the cold fusion case or in statistical mechanics “a
priori,” even though strictly speaking it is “deduction from
well-established, broadly robust empirical facts.”
Someday, we can all hope, neuroscience will reach the same level of
maturity already attained by economics and some areas of physics.
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PhysicistDave
I think what Feynmann meant by "cargo-cult science" was specifically
loading up on mathematical mumbo-jumbo without any actual empirical
basis for the math but just to impress people with how “scientific” you
were. I know he was especially disdainful of Samuelson’s “Foundations
of Economic Analysis,” which he reportedly read cover to cover (unlike
some people here who are criticizing Mises without having read “Human
Action”!).
I never talked with Feynmann about this in detail, although I did know
him well. (However, I actually did hear his original speech about this
in person.)
Incidentally, Feynmann had the same attitude towards physics – he
thought that one clear concept was worth a hundred pages of math. He
had a true gift for seeing through the math to the underlying physics
(hence, “Feynmann diagrams”). I aspire to the same, but then I’m no
Feynmann.
I do think it is fair to expand the phrase “cargo-cult science” to
describe all sorts of silly “physics envy" in the social sciences, most
especially when that physics envy exhibits a woeful lack of
understanding of the actual procedures of physics itself!
I hope it is clear from all this discussion that I do not deny the
possibility that either advanced math or detailed empirical studies may
someday produce some important results in economics. I just do not know
of any historically. Of course, as I have emphasized, Mises’ foremost
student, Rothbard, acknowledged that broad well-established empirical
facts were indeed at the foundation of economics, and Rothbard, who
after all, unlike most of his critics and most “mathematical”
economists, actually had a degree in mathematics, also did use some
math in his presentation (e.g., in the classic Austrian textbook, “Man,
Economy, and State”).
But Rothbard, perhaps because he actually did know mathematics, also
did try to obey what we might call “Feynmann’s principle”: use no more
math than necessary.
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Mencius
The goal of AE is to explain the recurrent patterns of behavior that we
see over and over again in networks of independently motivated,
intelligent individuals. The product of this exercise is verbal by
definition. If you try to achieve it with the mathematical techniques
of Marshall and his heirs, what you get is a string of formulas, plus a
press release explaining it in English.
The former is rigorously derived, but its assumptions are extremely
hard to corral, collate and check. The latter is (typically) incredibly
sloppy and ill-reasoned, and derives its authority from the former in
classic papal style.
The Austrians, like the economists of all centuries but the last,
prefer to take both in one step. Thus their work is far more open to
criticism and debate - the adversarial process that actually makes the
"scientific method" work.
Did your training in mathematical economics convince you that maturity
transformation is a normal, healthy part of a stable financial system?
Try my Austrian-lite explanation of the problem, which I think any intelligent person can read. Though it helps if they understand division.
Probably the most important product of the Austrian edifice is not the
ABCT, but simply the conclusion that any quantity of money is adequate
- there is no need for the money supply to expand "to meet the needs of
trade."
This can be explained simply without any math:
Demand for currency is indirect - it is motivated not by the monetary
commodity itself (gold, engraved green paper, Yap stones, etc), but by
the goods the commodity can be exchanged for. [This is not completely
true under a gold standard, because gold has direct uses, but even
under a gold standard most demand for gold is indirect.]
Thus, as Hume pointed out, currency can be redenominated neutrally -
adding or subtracting zeroes, or multiplying by any other value - as
long as the change is uniform, it affects all those who hold or owe the
currency equally. For example, contracts must be redenominated as well.
Thus, we can define all balances of a currency as fractions of the
total quantity extant. If that quantity is fixed, the fractional and
traditional notations are identical. If that quantity changes
uniformly, the traditional representation changes and the fractional
representation does not.
In the fractional representation, however, nonuniform creation of new
currency is equivalent to a transfer of money from those who did not
get the new currency, to those who did. Ie, illegal counterfeiting is
theft. Legal monetary creation is taxation.
The punch line is that we have no reason at all to believe that healthy
trade and industry depend on involuntary transfers. So we have no
reason to believe, with Friedman, that the money supply must expand to
match "economic growth."
Of course this observation, which as you can see has nothing to do with
psychology, was known not only to Hume, but to all 19C economists. (I
believe the first at least in modern times to observe it was
Cantillon.) It is also basically obvious. But if today's neoclassical
economists understand it, they keep that very, very quiet.
There is a reason for this, which is that the relationship between 20C
economics and the 20C state is unusually close. The former sees its
primary role as suggesting policy choices to the latter. Thus some
friendliness is to be expected.
The monetary models that the likes of Keynes and Fisher produced, which
of course were vastly less sophisticated than what PhDs today turn out,
were primarily designed to obscure this rather obvious fact. Ie, they
allowed state and quasistate institutions to engage in behavior which
in the past had been conceived as prima facie evidence of official
malfeasance (debasing and coin clipping), and present it as the latest,
greatest science, an update of the old "orthodox" fuddy-duddy
conventional wisdom.
To hear the products of this tradition describe the gold standard as
"crank" economics is sort of like being in the Louvre when a crazy
homeless person pulls down his pants, craps in his hand, and rubs it
all over the Mona Lisa, while museum security and a roomful of tourists
applaud. I don't believe that any further empirical evidence is
required to distrust mathematical economics. Your mileage, of course,
may vary.
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